DHA Obs. and Gyn. Course Materials 2024

DHA Obs. and Gyn. Exam Materials

Online course for 3 months

This package contains :

– 9 Chapters , Each chapter contains 1000 new MCQ for Obstetric and Gynecology specialist exam for DHA Exam – (Dubai Health Authority)updated weekly.

-We have real MCQs from previous exams. not from books.

NOTES !!!
– Do not miss ! weekly updated questions,
– All questions are corrected by specialist doctor
– All questions are repeated ! with 80-89 % repeated questions.
– No need to study other sources !
– Enough to pass easily.

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Questions Samples :

Question 1
A 32-year-old G2P2 develops fever and uterine tenderness 1 day atier cesarean delivery for nonreassuring fetal heart tones. She started on broad-spectrum antibiotics. On postoperative day 4, the patient remains febrile and symptomatic with abdominal and pelvic tenderness. Her lung and cardiovascular exams are normal and she has no costovertebral angle tenderness. She is successfully breast-feeding and her breast examination is normal. Computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen shows a small bladder flap hematoma. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. CT-directed needle drainage of hematoma
B. Continued treatment with antibiotics
C. Exploratory laparotomy and drainage of hematoma
D. Hysterectomy

Answer: B
In patients with endometritis who continue to spike fevers while receiving adequate broad-spectrum antibiotic coverage, parametrial phlegmon (pelvic cellulitis) should be suspected. In women with phlegmon, continued treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics usually results in clinical improvement. Most are afebrile in 5 to 7 days.
CT imaging can be done to rule out pelvic abscesses which if present should be drained. Bladder flap hematomas are commonly identified on imaging atier cesarean delivery and require no treatment unless abscess is suspected. Hysterectomy is reserved for women in whom uterine necrosis is suspected. IV heparin has been used by some as a treatment along with antibiotics for septic pelvic thrombophlebitis, however it does not hasten or improve recovery.

 

 

Question 2
A 35 year-old woman was seen in the Gynaecological Outpatient Clinic with excessive and offensive vaginal discharge.
What organism is the most likely cause of her vaginal discharge?
A Trichomonous vaginalis
B Staphylococcus aureus
C Gonococcal infection
D Chlamydia trachomitis

Answer: A
Trichomoniasis is infection of the vagina or male genital tract with Trichomonas vaginalis (TV).
TV is a flagellated protozoan. It is a sexually transmitted infection which usually causes an offensive vaginal discharge. It can be asymptomatic or cause urethritis, vaginitis, or occasionally cystitis, epididymitis, or prostatitis.
Diagnosis is by direct microscopic examination, dipstick tests, or nucleic acid amplification tests of vaginal secretions or by urine or urethral culture.
Patients and sex partners are treated with metronidazole or tinidazole.

 

 

Question 3
Which of the following is the most accurate test for primary syphilis?
A VDRL
B RPR
C Dark field microscopy
D Lymph node biopsy

Answer: C
Primary syphilis
Disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum (only transmitted by sexual contact or from mother to child)
Incubation period: 6 weeks.
Characterized by painless chancre and painless lymphadenopathy.
Chancre is a well demarcated ulcer with indurated base, and it resolves spontaneously without scar formation.
Dark field microscopy: best initial test.
VDRL and rapid plasma regain (RPR) are 80% sensitive screening tests.
Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) or microhemag-glutination assay for antibodies to treponemes (MHA-TP) used to confirm diagnosis
Treatment: Penicillin is the drug of choice for all patients

 

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