HAAD Obs. and Gyn. Exam Materials Course
Online course for 3 months
This package contains :
– 9 Chapters , Each chapter contains 1000 new MCQ for Obstetric and Gynecology specialist exam for HAAD Exam – Abu Dhabi (Health Authority–Abu Dhabi) with explanation updated weekly.
We have real MCQs from previous exams. not from books.
– Do not miss ! weekly updated questions,
– All questions are corrected by specialist doctor
– All questions are repeated ! with 80-89 % repeated questions.
– No need to study other sources !
– Enough to pass easily.
Questions Samples :
What is the best drug given to prevent postoperative thromboembolism?
A. LW heparin
B. UF heparin
Unfractionated heparin (UFH) may be preferred if the patient is likely to have immediate surgery because of its shorter half-life and reversibility with protamine compared with LMWH.
A 32 weeks gestation, Para 2+0 woman, attended the emergency Department complaining of lower abdominal and back pain that has increased in its frequency and intensity over the last few hours. Abdominal examination conrfimed symphysis-fundal height equal to 32 cm with longitudinal lie fetus and cephalic presentation. Fetal heart was positive and cardiotocography was reactive with 2-3 uterine contractions per 10 minutes. Vaginal examination confirmed 1 cm dilated cervix and 2 cm long, presenting part was cephalic at -3 station. Which of the following would be the best next step for this woman?
A. Inform neonatologist, give corticosteroids and strict bed rest
B. Inform neonatologist, give intravenous antibiotics and strict bed rest
C. Inform neonatologist, give tocolytics and corticosteroids
D. Inform neonatologist, start intravenous antibiotics and hydrate the patient
This woman most likely has preterm labor. The best next step for this woman will be – inform neonatologist and give tocolytics and corticosteroids which would help to induce maturity of the fetal lungs.
primary amenorrhea, what is the next investigation?
First step: Get a pregnancy test.
Next step: Obtain a radiograph to determine if bone age is consistent with pubertal onset (> 12 years in girls).
If the patient is of short stature (bone age < 12 years) with normal
growth velocity, constitutional growth delay (the most common cause of 1° amenorrhea) is the probable cause.
If bone age is > 12 years but there are no signs of puberty, obtain LH/ FSH and consider where the problem is on the HPA axis .
↓ GnRH, ↓ LH/FSH, ↓ estrogen/progesterone at prepuberty levels: Points to
constitutional growth delay (puberty has not yet started).
↓ GnRH, ↓ LH/FSH, ↓ estrogen/progesterone: Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
Suggests a hypothalamic or pituitary problem.
↑ GnRH, ↑ LH/FSH, ↓ estrogen/progesterone: Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. Points
to a condition in which the ovaries fail to produce estrogen.
↑ GnRH, ↑ LH/FSH, high estrogen or testosterone: Suggests PCOS or a problem with estrogen receptors.
Normal pubertal hormone levels: Indicates an anatomic problem
Ultrasound may be needed to evaluate the ovaries.
Normal breast development and no uterus: Obtain a karyotype to evaluate for androgen insensitivity syndrome.
Stigmata of Turner’s syndrome: Obtain a karyotype.
Normal breast development and uterus: Measure prolactin and obtain a cranial MRI.
Mohammed khan –
Thanks for you support
Noor abid –
أسئلة مفيدة اوى و عاوزة اشكركم جميعا
شكرا لمساعدتي في النجاح
د محمد المطيري –
المواد وايد مفيدة وكثيرة جدا
Mohammed hadi –
Honestly the best materials I had read , it is full book not like other sites
Really the best site for preparation for prometric exam
Dr mohammed hadi
محمد عبدالله –
مصادر رائعة التحضير للامتحانات
Nisreen abdullah –
Thanks for helping me
Glad to deal with you
I advise all to buy
Dr Zaki hassan –
المصادر جيدة مع الشرح المفصل
Dr Abdullah –
I passed with your materials last month
Many thanks for helping me
Dr Abdullah Omer , cairo , Egypt